HSC Biology Textbook all MCQ: Maharashtra Board

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 Biodiversity and Conservation

Q.1. Select the odd one out on the basis of ex situ conservation

(A) Zoological park

(B) Tissue culture

(C) Sacred groves

(D) Cryopreservation

Q.2. The term "terror of Bengal" is used for _________.

(A) algal bloom

(B) water hyacinth

(C) increased BOD

(D) eutrophication

Q.3. CFC are air polluting agents which are produced  by ________.

(A) Diesel trucks

(B) Jet planes

(C) Rice fields

(D) Industries

Q.4. Which of the following factors will favour species diversity ?

(A) Invasive species

(B) Glaciation

(C) Forest canopy

(D) Co extinction 

Ecosystem and energy flow

Q.1. What is the % of photosynthetically active radiation in the incident solar radiation ?

(A) 100 %

(B) 50 %

(C) 1 - 5 %

(D) 2- 10 %

Q.2. The second trophic level in a lake is 

(A) phytoplankton

(B) zooplankton

(C) benthos

(D) fishes

Q.3. Which of the following is the most often a limiting factor of the primary productivity in any ecosystem ?

(A) Carbon

(B) Nitrogen

(C) Phosphorous

(D) Sulphur

Q.4. After landslide which of the following type of succession occurs ?

(A) Primary

(B) Secondary

(C) Tertiary

(D) Climax

Q.5. Give the term used to express a community in its final stage of succession ?

(A) End community 

(B) Final community

(C) Climax community

(D) Dark community

Q.6. Which one of the following has the largest population in a food chain ?

(A) producers

(B) primary consumers

(C) secondary consumers

(D) decomposers

Q.7. Secondary consumers are

(A) herbivorous

(B) producers

(C) carnivorous

(D) autotrophs

Organism and population

Q.1. Association between sea anemone and Hermit crab in gastropod shell is that of

(A) Mutualism

(B) Commensalism

(C) Parasitism

(D) Amensalism

Q.2. Growth of bacteria in a newly inoculated agar plate shows

(A) exponential growth

(B) logistic growth

(C) Verhulst - Pearl logistic growth

(D) zero growth

Q.3. An assemblage of individuals of different species living in the same habitat and having functional interactions is 

(A) Biotic community

(B) Ecological niche

(C) Population

(D) Ecosystem

Q.4. Which factor of an ecosystem includes plants, animals and microorganisms ?

(A) Biotic factor

(B) Abiotic factor

(C) Direct factor

(D) Indirect factor

Q.5. Select the statement which explains best parasitism,

(A) One species is benefited

(B) Both the species are benefited

(C) One species is benefited, other is not affected.

(D) One species is benefited, other is harmed.

Biotechnology

Q.1. In vitro amplification of DNA or RNA segment is known as ______

(A) chromatography

(B) southern blotting

(C) polymerase chain reaction

(D) gel electrophoresis

Q.2. The enzyme nuclease hydrolyses __________ of polynucleotide chain of DNA.

(A) hydrogen bonds

(B) phosphodiester bonds

(C) glyosidic bonds

(D) peptide bonds

Q.3. Recognition sequence of restriction enzymes are generally _______ nucleotide long.

(A) 2 to 4

(B)4 to 8

(C) 8 to 10

(D) 14 to 18

Q.4. The bacterium which causes a plant disease called crown gall is _________.

(A) Helicobacter pylori

(B) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

(C) Thermophilus aquaticus

(D) Bacillus thuringiensis

Q.5. Recombinant protein _______ is used to dissolve blood clots present in the body.

(A) insulin

(B) tissue plasminogen activator

(C) relaxing

(D) erythropoietin

Enhancement of food production

Q.1. Mule is the outcome of 

(A) inbreeding

(B) artificial insemination

(C) interspecific hybridization

(D) outbreeding

Q.2. Antibiotic Chloromycetin is obtained from

(A) Streptomyces erythreus

(B) Penicillium chrysogenum

(C)  Streptomyces Venezuela

(D)  Streptomyces griseous

Q.3. Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular species of 

(A)  Aspergillus 

(B)  Saccharomyces

(C) Clostridium

(D) Trichoderma

Q.4. Removal of large pieces of floating debris, oily substances etc. during sewage treatment is called 

(A) primary treatment

(B) secondary treatment

(C) final treatment

(D) amplification

Q.5. Most commonly used substrate for industrial production of beer is 

(A) barley

(B) wheat

(C) corn

(D) sugarcane molasses

Q.6. Microorganisms also help in production of food like

(A) bread

(B) alcoholic beverages

(C) vegetables

(D) pulses

Q.7. Which one of the following is free living bacterial bio fertilizer ?

(A)  Azotobacter

(B) Rhizobium

(C) Nostoc

(D) Bacillus thuringiensis

Q.8. MOET technique is used for 

(A) production of hybrids

(B) inbreeding

(C) outbreeding

(D) outcrossing

Human Health and diseases 

Q1. Elephantiasis is caused by____________

(A) W. bancrofti

(B) P. vivax

(C) Bedbug

(D) Elephant

Q.2. Opium derivative is ______.

(A) Codeine

(B) Caffeine

(C) Heroin

(D) Psilocybin

Q.3. Which of the following is NOT caused by unsterilized needles?

(A) Elephantiasis

(B) AIDS

(C) Malaria

(D) Hepatitis B

Q.4. Innate immunity is provided by _________

(A) phagocytes

(B) antibody

(C) T- Lymphocytes

(D) B-Lymphocytes

Q.5. The antiviral proteins released by a virus-infected cell are called _____.

(A) histamines

(B) interferons

(C) pyrogens

(D) allergens

Q.6. Both B-cells and T-cells are derived from ________.

(A) lymph nodes

(B) thymus glands

(C) liver

(D) stem cells in bone marrow

Q.7. Which of the following diseases can be contracted by droplet infection ?

(A) Malaria

(B) Chicken pox

(C) Pneumonia

(D) Rabies

Q.8. Confirmatory test used for detecting HIV infection is ________.

(A) ELISA

(B) Western blot

(C) Widal test

(D) Eastern blot

Control and Coordination

Q.1. A collection of neuron cell bodies located outside the CNS is called _______.

(A) Tract

(B) Nucleus

(C) Nerve

(D) Ganglion

Q.2. ___________ is a neurotransmitter.

(A) ADH

(B) Acetyl CoA

(C) Acetylcholine

(D) Inositol

Q.3. Pheromones are chemical messengers produced by animals and released outside the body. The odour of these substances affects

(A) skin colour

(B) excretion

(C) digestion

(D) behavior

Q.4. Receptors for protein hormones are located

(A) in cytoplasm

(B) on cell surface

(C) in nucleus

(D) on Golgi complex

Q5. Which one of the following is a set of discrete endocrine glands?

(A) Salivary, Thyroid, Adrenal, Ovary

(B) Adrenal, Testis, Ovary, Liver

(C) Pituitary, Thyroid, Adrenal, Thymus

(D) Pituitary, Pancreas, Adrenal, Thymus

Q.6. If parathyroid gland of man are removed, the specific result will be

(A) onset of aging

(B) disturbance of 

(C) onset of myxoedema

(D) elevation of blood pressure

Q.7. The supporting cells that produce myelin sheath in the PNS are _______.

(A) Oligodendrocytes

(B) Satellite cells

(C) Astrocytes

(D) Schwann cells

Q.8. After ovulation, Graafian follicle changes into

(A) Corpus  luteum

(B) Corpus albicans

(C) Corpus spongiosum

(D) Corpus callosum

Q.9. ________ is in direct contact of brain in human.

(A) Cranium

(B) Durameter

(C) Arachnoid

(D) Piameter

Q.10. The nervous system of mammals uses both electrical and chemical means to send signals via neurons. Which part of the neuron receives impulse?

(A) Axon

(B) Dendron

(C) Nodes of Ranvier

(D) Neurilemma

Q.11. Which one of the following pair correctly matches a hormone with a disease resulting from its deficiency?

(A) Parathyroid hormone - Diabetes insipidus

(B) Luteinizing hormone - Diabetes mellitus

(C) Insulin - Hyperglycemia

(D) Thyroxine - Tetany

Q.12. Hormone thyroxine, adrenaline and nor adrenaline are formed from ______ .

(A) Glycine

(B) Arginine

(C) Ornithine

(D) Tyrosine

Respiration and circulation

Q.1. ______ is a sound producing organ

(A) Larynx

(B) Pharynx

(C) Tonsils

(D) Trachea

Q.2. The muscular structure that separates the thoracic and abdominal cavity is _______.

(A) pleura

(B) diaphragm

(C) trachea

(D) epithelium

Q.3. Cockroach shows which kind of circulatory system?

(A) Open

(B) Closed

(C) Lymphatic

(D) Double

Q.4. Which of the following animals do not have closed circulation?

(A) Earthworm

(B) Rabbit

(C) Butterfly

(D) Shark

Q.5. The fluid seen in the inter cellular spaces in human is _______

(A) blood

(B) lymph

(C) interstitial fluid

(D) water

Q.6. The maximum volume of gas that is inhale during breathing in addition to T.V is  __________ .

(A) residual volume

(B) I.R.V.

(C) G.R.V.

(D) Vital capacity

Q.7. Movement of cytoplasm in unicellular organisms is called _____ .

(A) diffusion

(B) cyclosis

(C) circulation

(D) thrombosis

Q.8. Pacemaker of heart is _______.

(A) SA node

(B) AV node

(C) His bundle

(D) Purkinje fibres

Q.9. _________ wave in ECG represent atrial depolarization.

(A) P

(B) QRS complex

(C) Q

(D) T

Q.10. Which of the following is without nucleus?

(A) Red blood corpuscle

(B) Neutrophil

(C) Basophil

(D) Lymphocyte

Q.11. Diapedesis can bee seen in _______ cell.

(A) RBC

(B) WBC

(C) Platelet

(D) Neuron

Q.12. Diapedesis is performed by _______ .

(A) erythrocytes

(B) thrombocytes

(C) adipocytes

(D) leucocytes

Q.13. Opening of inferior vena cava is guarded by ______.

(A) bicuspid valve

(B) tricuspid valve

(C) Eustachian valve

(D) The besian valve

Q.14. _______ muscles contract when the external intercostal muscles contract.

(A) Internal abdominal

(B) Jaw

(C) Muscles in bronchial walls

(D) Diaphragm

Q.15. What is the minimum number of plasma membrane that oxygen has to diffuse across to pass from air in the alveolus to hemoglobin inside a RBC?

(A) Two

(B) Three

(C) Four

(D) Five

Plant Growth and Mineral Nutrition

Q.1. Abscisic acid controls

(A) cell division

(B) leaf fall and dormancy

(C) shoot elongation

(D) cell elongation and wall formation

Q.2. Which of the following is required for stimulation of flowering in the plants ?

(A) Adequate oxygen

(B) Definite photo period

(C) Adequate water

(D) Water and minerals

Q.3. The principle pathway of water translocation in angiosperms is 

(A) Sieve cells

(B) Sieve tube elements

(C) Xylem

(D) Xylem and phloem

Q.4. Conversion of nitrates to nitrogen is called

(A) ammonification

(B) nitrification

(C) nitrogen fixation

(D) denitrification

Q.5. For short day plants, the critical period is

(A) light

(B) dark/night

(C) UV rays

(D) both (A) and (B) 

Q.6. Which of the following is day neutral plant ?

(A) Tomato 

(B) Cotton

(C) Sunflower

(D) Soybean

Q.7. Essential macro elements are

(A) manufactured during photosynthesis

(B) produced by enzymes

(C) absorbed from soil

(D) produced by growth hormones

Q.8. Function of Zinc is 

(A) closing of stomata

(B) biosynthesis of 3-IAA

(C) synthesis of chlorophyll

(D) oxidation of carbohydrates

Q.9. Necrosis means

(A) yellow spots on the leaves

(B) death of tissue

(C) darkening of green colour in leaves

(D) wilting of leaves

Q.10. Which is employed for artificial ripening of banana fruits?

(A) Auxin

(B) Ethylene

(C) Ctyokinin

(D) Gibberellin 

Q.11. Which of the hormones can replace vernalization?

(A) Auxin

(B) Cytokinin

(C) Gibberellins

(D) Ethylene

Q.12. How many molecules of ATP are required to fix one molecule of nitrogen ?

(A) 12

(B) 20

(C) 6

(D) 16

Plant Water Relation

Q.1. The most widely accepted theory for ascent of sap is 

(A) capillary theory

(B) root pressure theory

(C) diffusion

(D) transpiration pull theory

Q.2. Surface tension is due to

(A) diffusion

(B) osmosis

(C) gravitational force

(D) cohesion

Q.3. Which of the following type of solution has lower level of solutes than the solution ?

(A) Isotonic

(B) Hypotonic

(C) Hypertonic

(D) Anisotonic

Q.4. Osmosis is a property of

(A) solute

(B) solvent

(C) solution

(D) membrane

Q.5. Water movement between the cells is due to

(A) T.P.

(B) W.P.

(C) DPD

(D) incipient plasmolysis

Q.6. During rainy season wooden doors warp and become difficult to open or close because of 

(A) plasmolysis

(B) imbibition

(C) osmosis

(D) diffusion

Q.7. Water absorption takes place through

(A) aerial parts of a plants

(B) rhizosphere

(C) water stomata

(D) all four regions of a root

Q.8. In soil, water available for absorption by root is

(A) gravitational water

(B) capillary water

(C) hygroscopic water

(D) combined water

Q.9. In guard cells, when sugar is converted into starch, the stomatal pore

(A) closes almost completely

(B) opens partially

(C) opens fully

(D) remains unchanged

Origin and Evolution of Life

Q.1. Select the analogous organs.

(A) Forelimbs of whale and bat

(B) Flippers of dolphins and penguin

(C) Thorn and tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita

(D) Vertebrates hearts or brains

Q.2. Archaeopteryx is known as missing link because it is a fossil and share characters of both

(A) Fishes and amphibians

(B) Annelida and arthropoda

(C) Birds and reptiles

(D) Chordates and non chordates

Q.3. Identify the WRONG statement regarding evolution.

(A) Darwin's variations are small and directional.

(B) Mutations are random and nondirectional.

(C) Adaptive radiations leads to divergent evolution.

(D) Mutations are non- random and directional.

Q.4. Gene frequency in a population remain constant due to -

(A) Mutation

(B) Migration

(C) Random mating

(D) Non- random mating 

Q.5. The sequence of origin of life may be -

(A) Organic materials - inorganic materials - Eobiont - colloidal aggregates - cell.

(B) Inorganic materials - organic materials - colloidal aggregates - Eobiont - cell.

(C) Organic materials - inorganic materials - colloidal aggregates - cell.

(D) Inorganic materials - organic materials - Eobiont - colloidal aggregates - cell.

Q.6. ________ can be considered as connecting link between ape and man.

(A) Australopithecus

(B) Homo habilis

(C) Homo erectus

(D) Neanderthal man 

Q.7. Which of the following characteristic is NOT shown by the ape?

(A) Prognathous face

(B) Tail is present

(C) Chin is absent

(D) Forelimbs are longer than hind limbs

Q.8. In Hardy - Weinberg equation, the frequency of homozygous recessive individual is represented by :-

(A) 

(B) pq

(C) 

(D) 2pq

Q.9. Who proposed that the first form of life could have come from pre- existing non living organic molecules?

(A) Alfred Wallace

(B) Oparin and Haldane

(C) Charles Darwin

(D) Louis Pasteur

Q.10. The cranial capacity of Neanderthal man was 

(A) 600 cc

(B) 940 cc

(C) 1400 cc

(D) 1600 cc

Molecule Basis of Inheritance

Q.1.Griffith worked on ______.

(A) Bacteriophage

(B) Drosophila

(C) Frog eggs

(D) Streptococci

Q.2. In the RNA molecule, which nitrogen base is found in place of thymine?

(A) Guanine

(B) Cytosine

(C) Thymine

(D) Uracil

Q.3. How many codons are needed to specify three amino acids ?

(A) 3

(B) 6

(C) 9

(D) 12

Q.4. The molecular knives of DNA are ______.

(A) Ligases

(B) Polymerases

(C) Endonucleases

(D) Transcriptase

Q.5. The enzyme required for transcription is ________.

(A) DNA polymerase

(B) RNA polymerase

(C) Restriction enzyme

(D) RNase

Q.6. Which of the following is NOT a part of protein synthesis?

(A) Replication

(B) Translation

(C) Transcription

(D) All of these

Q.7. Transcription is the transfer of genetic information from _________ .

(A) DNA to RNA

 (B) tRNA to mRNA

(C) DNA to mRNA

(D) mRNA to tRNA

Q.8. Place the following event of translation in the correct sequence

i. Binding of met-tRNA to the start codon

ii. Covalent bonding between two amino acids

iii. Binding of second tRNA

iv. Joining of small and large ribosome subunits.

(A) iii, iv, i, ii

(B) i, iv, iii, ii

(C) iv, iii, ii, i

(D) ii, iii, iv, i 

Q.9. Which out of the following is NOT an example of inducible operon ?

(A) Lactose operon

(B) Histidine operon

(C) Arabinose operon 

(D) Tryptophan operon

Q.10. Translation occurs in the ______ .

(A) nucleus

(B) cytoplasm

(C) nucleolus

(D) lysosomes

 Inheritance And Variation

Q.1. If the centromere is situated near the end of the chromosome, the chromosome is called _______.

(A) metacentric

(B) acrocentric

(C) sub-metacentric

(D) telocentric 

Q.2. When phenotypic and genotypic ratios are the same, then it is an example of _________.

(A) incomplete dominance

(B) complete dominance

(C) multiple alleles

(D) cytoplasmic inheritance

Q.3. If the genes are located in a chromosome as p-q-r-s-t, which of the following gene pairs will have least probability of being inherited together ?

(A) p and q 

(B) r and s 

(C) s and t 

(D) p and s 

 Q.4. A colour blind man marries a woman, who is homozygous for normal colour vision, the probablility of their son being colour blind is -

(A) 0%

(B) 25%

(C) 50%

(D) 100%

Q.5. In dihybrid cross,  generation offsprings show four different phenotypes while the genotypes are _______ .

(A) six

(B) nine

(C) eight

(D) sixteen

Q.6. Chromosomal theory of inheritance was purposed by _______ .

(A) Sutton and Boveri

(B) Watson and Crick

(C) Miller and Urey

(D) Oparin and Halden

Q.7. Find the MISMATCH pair :-

(A) Down syndrome = 44 + XY

(B) Turner syndrome = 44 + XO

(C) Klinefelter syndrome = 44 + XXY

(D) Super female = 44 + XXX

Q.8. A cross between an individual with unknown genotype for a trait with recessive plant for that trait is ________.

(A) black cross

(B) reciprocal cross

(C) monohybrid cross

(D) test cross

Reproduction in Lower and Higher Animal

Q.1. Test tube baby technique is called _______ .

(A) in vivo fertilization

(B) in situ fertilization

(C) in vitro fertilization

(D) artificial insemination 

Q.2. The given figure shows a human sperm. Various parts of it are labelled as i, ii, iii and iv. Which labelled part represents acrosome?

(A) ii

(B) iii

(C) iv

(D) i 

Q.3. Presence of beard in boys is a_____

(A) primary sex organ

(B) secondary sexual character

(C) secondary sex organ

(D) primary sexual character

Q.4. Attachment of embryo to the wall of the uterus is known as ______

(A) fertilization

(B) infundibulum

(C) uterus

(D) fundus

Q.5. In human female, the fertilized egg gets implanted in uterus _______.

(A) After about 7 days of fertilization

(B) After about 30 days of fertilization

(C) After about two months of fertilization

(D) After about 3 weeks of fertilization

Q.6. The number of nuclei present in a zygote is ______ .

(A) two

(B) one

(C) four

(D) eight

Q.7. Which of these is the male reproductive organ in human?

(A) sperm

(B) seminal fluid

(C) testes

(D) ovary

Q.8. Rupturing of follicles and discharge of ova is known as _______

(A) capacitation

(B) gestation

(C) ovulation

(D) copulation

 Reproduction in Lower and Higher Plant

Q.1.Point out the odd one 

(A) Nucellus

(B) Embryo sac

(C) Micropyle

(D) Pollen grain

Q.2. In ovule, meiosis occurs in

(A) integument

(B) nucellus

(C) megaspore

(D) megaspore mother cell

Q.3. Which of the following types require pollinator but result is genetically similar to autogamy?

(A) Geitonogamy

(B) Xenogamy

(C) Apogamy

(D) Cleistogamy 

Q.4. Insect pollinated flowers usually posses

(A) Sticky pollens with rough surface

(B) Large quantities of pollens

(C) Dry pollens with smooth surface

(D) Light coloured pollens

Q.5. The ploidy level in NOT the same in

(A) Integuments and nucellus

(B) Root tip and shoot tip

(C) Secondary nucleus and endosperm

(D)Antipodals and synergids

Q.6. In angiosperms, endosperm is formed by/due to 

(A) free nuclear divisions of megaspore

(B) polar nuclei

(C) polar nuclei and male gamete

(D) synergids and male gamete

Q.7. If diploid chromosome number in a flowering plant is 12, then which one of the following will have 6 chromosomes?

(A) Endosperm

(B) Leaf cells

(C) Cotyledons

(D) Synergids

Q.8. Chlamydomonas reproduce asexually by

(A) binary fission

(B) spore formation

(C) budding

(D) gemmule formation